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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible?

 
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 11/13/2009 10:31:08 PM   
schtumpy


Posts: 891
Joined: 12/2/2008
Status: offline
Yes.
I understand.

It's just the different standards that befuddle me.

Words mean different things dependant upon whether they're being used to describe behaviour by God or behavious by people.

We should really have a different set of words that apply to God and others that apply to us.

Or, we could have little riders in the dictionary after certain words.

"Jealous" - a negative, possessive emotion (unless used to describe God).
"Genocide" - a heinous, blood-curdling hate crime (unless committed by God).
"Infanticide" - horrible stealing of innocent life (unless committed bu God).
Etc etc

< Message edited by schtumpy -- 11/13/2009 10:37:29 PM >


_____________________________

I deplore what you say but I'll defend to the death your right to say it.
- attributed to Voltaire
Post #: 251
RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 11/17/2009 10:41:01 PM   
Sentri

 

Posts: 11
Joined: 10/27/2009
Status: offline
quote:

ORIGINAL: godsend221

If God is so loving, why did he kill innocent people in the Old Testament?


Someone is right. Whether they are innocent will have to be judged by God's Law.

Second, God doesn't allow the already dead standing on His way of salvation, as soul-saving is always in the highest priority.

Third, if the dead are truly innocent, they (their) souls are saved. If however they stay longer in an area full of idols and false gods, they might not be able to be saved later on. This is not up to our moral concept to judge though.
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