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bgwill3 -> RE: Who wrote the Epistle to the Hebrews? (7/2/2008 4:45:24 PM)
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With respect to kurios usage, I compare Romans to Hebrews for a few reasons: (1) they both would seem to address a large community of believers; (2) neither is particularly occasional, like the Corinthian letters, Galatians, and other Pauline epistles; and (3) they deal systematically with theological concepts.
In Paul’s epistle to the Romans, I count kurios (including varying cases) translated as “Lord” 45 times. Of these 45 instances, nearly two-thirds (29 of 45) refer specifically and unambiguously to Jesus as distinguished from the Father. These 29 occurrences can be categorized as follows:
Fifteen appear in connection with “Jesus Christ” (“our Lord Jesus Christ,” “Jesus Christ our Lord,” “Christ Jesus our Lord,” e.g.). Three instances occur with the name “Jesus” (without the term “Christ”). Nine times, Paul uses kurios alone, but its context points to Jesus (eight times in 14:6-9, where v. 9 gives us the context). In two instances, Paul quotes the LXX, applying a kurios (“YHWH” in the Hebrew text) passage to Jesus specifically.
Of the remaining 16 occurrences of kurios in Romans, eight are quotations from the LXX. The other eight are ambiguous with no reference to the LXX. Seven of these eight ambiguous instances are in chapter 16, and, though ambiguous, their use implies reference to Jesus.
If we include these eight ambiguous instances as referring to Jesus, we have 37 of 45 instances of the word kurios in Romans specifically referring to Jesus as kurios (about 82.2%), and only eight of 45 instances from quotes of the LXX, not specifically referring to Jesus as kurios (about 17.8%).
Thus, it appears that Paul, in his writings, more readily refers to Jesus as kurios. Truly, the term kurios, by the end of the first century, seems to have become a specialized term, used more as a referent to Jesus than to God the Father. I have not examined the statistical information of kurios in the entire NT, but it seems apparent from Romans and from Hebrews that the word was seldom used to refer to God the Father, except in quotation of the LXX. That being said, the fact that the author of Hebrews employs the word so seldom with reference to Jesus is another departure from Paul’s usage of kurios.
Also, consider the phrase “Son of God.” In all of the Pauline epistles (excl. Hebrews), we find the very phrase four times: Romans 1:4; 2 Corinthians 1:19; Galatians 2:20; and Ephesians 4:13. Ironically, in Hebrews alone, we also find the phrase four times: 4:14; 6:6; 7:3; and 10:29.
There are other differences in vocabulary between Hebrews and the Pauline epistles. Hebrews calls Jesus “the Apostle and High Priest of our profession” (3:1). The author uses “high priest” as an aspect of his greater context—the tabernacle of Moses and its system of worship, as inferior to the ministry of Jesus, the Son of God. The entire vocabulary of the tabernacle worship is missing from the other epistles of Paul. Conceivably, it is the special subject of the tabernacle of Moses in the wilderness that accounts for the dependence on a vocabulary in Hebrews markedly different from the vocabulary in other epistles.
However, Paul never calls Jesus an apostle in any other epistle, and would seem to have a categorical definition of the word “apostle” that would exclude Jesus himself (cf. 1 Cor. 9:1-5; 12:28; 15:7-9; 2 Cor. 12:12, et al). Further, Paul repeatedly refers to his own apostleship. He calls himself an apostle several times, but never uses the term to describe Jesus.
Yet, in Hebrews, the author uses the word “apostle” only once, in a description of Jesus. Ironically, he doesn’t use the word to describe the group who heard and received the message of salvation firsthand (Heb. 2:3), and he excludes himself even from that group. This particular point seems salient in the determination of Pauline authorship.
Twice, the author of Hebrews refers to Jesus as seated on the right hand of the “Majesty” (1:3; 8:1). Twice, he simply says “on the right hand of God” (10:12) or “at the right hand of the throne of God” (12:2). In Paul’s other epistles, he never uses the word “Majesty” to refer to the Father or his throne (cf. Rom. 8:34; Col. 3:1).
Clearly, the author of Hebrews uses some metaphors that Paul used in his other epistles. At Hebrews 10:1, we find the description of the (Mosaic) Law as a “shadow of good things to come,” very similar to Colossians 2:16-17. At Hebrews 5:12ff., the author reproves his readers for their inability to receive the “meat” of his message, and their continuing need for “milk.” This metaphor is found in the Corinthian correspondence (1 Cor. 3:1-4). The author of Hebrews describes the word of God as “sharper than any twoedged sword” (4:12). Paul uses similar language elsewhere (Eph. 6:17).
I believe that the presence of similar metaphors but differing styles is explained simply: the author of Hebrews was a student of Paul. He learned from Paul certain metaphors, and employed these metaphors in his epistle. But he maintains his own style throughout. I would be interested if someone had any response to these comments I have made.
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